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Use of Sputnik double Legit or not?

#1 User is offline   Wackojack 

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Posted 2004-September-18, 11:12

Playing a 5M system (better minor) and 15-17NT. You open 1D at green, LHO overcalls 1S and partner doubles. This is passed to you and you have:
KQ8
Q9
AK987
1095
You rebid 1NT. This is passed to partner who now bids 2H.

What do you make of this bid? Assuming you are playing forcing new-suit bids over overcalls, can you assume that partner has 5 hearts (or more) and was not strong enough to respond 2H directly and therefore you must pass? I assumed that partner had something in clubs for his bid, and with my good 14, punted 3NT. Partner passed with unfortunate results when perhaps he should have converted to 4H having:
A103
K106542
1052
7

It does look from partner’s point of view that had I responded in clubs, he could make an equal level conversion to hearts, and had I rebid diamonds, he would be happy to play there.

Was this an intelligent use of the sputnik double?

Of course I might have opened my hand 1NT, then no doubt we would have got to a reasonable 4H contract. As it happened, hearts split 5-nil so a pass of 2H would have worked out well.
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#2 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2004-September-18, 11:34

i think your take ("Assuming you are playing forcing new-suit bids over overcalls, can you assume that partner has 5 hearts (or more) and was not strong enough to respond 2H directly and therefore you must pass?") was right... i won't go so far as to say you *must* pass, but i do think your partner had much more for this bid than he had to have

i believe i'd have passed 2h... of course all this wouldn't be necessary playing negative free bids :rolleyes: ... opening 1nt was right, from my view, and he bids 3h (over your supposed 2d)...

btw, i'm not sure he should have converted to 4h.. look at it from his view... he's thinking that he already told his story, that you heard him, and that he's gonna abide by your decision
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#3 User is offline   paulhar 

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Posted 2004-September-18, 12:05

I agree with Jimmy - partner's 2H rebid shows a hand that wants to play in 2H opposite your 1NT rebid and is intended as signoff. The only time I would bid again (and certainly not game) would be to try for game - I would have to have a hand not suitable for a 1NT rebid, but had it thrust upon me because my 1S rebid was taken away. For example: AK32, 4, Q6432, A53; what else can you do except rebid 1NT? Here, you shoot out 2H as you certainly don't have a game and might as well play in the weak hand's long suit. But, you might have had AKJ4, 4, KQT95, K103 and been forced to decide between a 1NT underbid and a 2NT overbid. Having chosen 1NT, you still have a chance for game despite partner's 2H bid. Here, I think it's OK to try for game with 2NT, which partner can try game (presuming you have a singleton heart), or might, with a suitable hand, correct to 3D, reading your shape to be what it is.

Not wanting to play 4H opposite a singleton, I wouldn't correct 3NT to 4H either.

I might have opened 1NT as well, but Kaplan-Rubens tells me I'm wrong, rating this hand as 14.25.
I tend to lead fourth best - as opposed to the best suit, the second best suit, or the third best suit for our side
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#4 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2004-September-18, 12:33

For most people who don't play negative free bids the double of 1x (1) simply shows and says nothing about the other unbid suit. It also tends to show a weakish hand unless there is no biddable suit (ie it might be a strong balanced hand).

The rationale being that if you wait until you have stuff in both suits before bidding, you will be forced to pass on a lot of hands, and so miss major suit contracts, possibly game contracts. It is not so serious to miss minor suit contracts, as the chance of game is less.

So playing that style, partner's bidding was correct.

Eric
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#5 User is offline   Wackojack 

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Posted 2004-September-19, 09:16

Thanks Luke warm, Paulhar, Erick for your views confirming that partner's bid was right and mine atrocious. I take it then that the types of hand that I would double on after 1m(1M) ? are:
1. "Pure" take out having M-m, 4-4, 5-4, 4-3, 5-3
2. Weak other M

Other weakish hands not suitable for 1NT, I would pass expecting partner to re-open with suitable shape. But Erick, why would I want to double on a strong balanced hand? I have available 2NT (11-12), 3NT (13-16) with stops in opps suit, and a Q in opps suit without a stop or possible slam.

btw Robson/Segal Partnership bidding seem to like only hand type 1 to double after the 1m(1M) sequence. They are also sceptical about negative free bids unless you play 4-card majors and strong NT. Have they changed their minds since writing?

I don't like rebidding 1NT with a singleton but with AK32, 4, Q6432, A53, I agree this is the least of evils.Playing 12-14NT and Acol based system where all opening bids promise 4 or more (as I do normally), there is a problem as partner would expect 1NT rebid 15-16. I would perhaps have to bid 2C, hoping partner would correct to 2D with 3.

btw, I think the hand is just strong enough to make a forcing bid of 2H directly, after all you do have 6 hearts and 3-card diamond support. Then the bidding would go 1D (1S) 2H p, 2NT p 3H p p, or 1D (1S) p 2H, 2NT p 3D p, 4H if you are feeling lucky.
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#6 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2004-September-19, 10:20

Quote

But Erick, why would I want to double on a strong balanced hand? I have available 2NT (11-12), 3NT (13-16) with stops in opps suit, and a Q in opps suit without a stop or possible slam.


If bidding starts 1 (1), I would double on xx AQxx Kxx KQxx.
I reserve the cue bid (2 in this example) for hands with support for partner. Of course, this isn't the only way to play, but it is fairly common and is what I like.

Quote

btw Robson/Segal Partnership bidding seem to like only hand type 1 to double after the 1m(1M) sequence. They are also sceptical about negative free bids unless you play 4-card majors and strong NT. Have they changed their minds since writing?


As far as I know they haven't changed their minds,

Quote

btw, I think the hand is just strong enough to make a forcing bid of 2H directly, after all you do have 6 hearts and 3-card diamond support. Then the bidding would go 1D (1S) 2H p, 2NT p 3H p p, or 1D (1S) p 2H, 2NT p 3D p, 4H if you are feeling lucky.


An immediate 2 is risky on the given hand, as it will often get you too high if opener has a singleton or void , and it might also get you too high if partner has a fit and plays you for more strength.

If you want to bid 2 on this sort of hand you ought to play negative free bids, but they do have certain drawbacks if opponents have good methods for competing over a negative double (which you are now forced to make on a lot of strong hands). If you don't have such opponents, negative free bids are actually a good idea.

Eric
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#7 User is offline   keylime 

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  Posted 2004-September-19, 10:58

NFB's are a very interesting concept and I rather like 'em. Really lets partner get out of jail by stating what they don't have.

However have heard in the food chain that some pairs play a transfer scheme over sequences like this. I wonder how cute that is.
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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2004-September-20, 06:42

to me:

1-(1)-X

Covers all the 8(7)-10 hands without stopper, and all the 11+ without 5 card suit nor support. Note that I said nothing about .

Also to me 1X-(1)-X-(pass)-1NT

Shows a 12-14 balanced either with or without stopper, I hate rebidding 4 card suits when xxx/AQJ/AJx/xxxx.
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