Lebensohl Vs Good-Bad 2NT

I think the distinction between gb2NT and lebhenshol is not such a important issue...if you mistakenly take it as gb2NT and it was lebehnshol or vise versa, not much damage is done (over gb2NT, as free pointed out, your partner does not, and perhaps relatively frequently doesn't rebid 3C).

The real problem, at least in my experience, is that experts and the rest of us disagree on the rules of when 2NT is good/bad (or lebehnsho)l, and when it is something else. In fact some people reverse the meaning of responses when playing gb2NT, with immediate 3 level bids being weak and bidding 2NT first being strong. But ignoring that, what else can 2NT be in competition? It can show a limit raise or better of partners suit, it can be natural, it can be scramble looking for safest (or best) fit at the three level, it can be usual or superunusal, and goodness only knows what else. Recent disagreements in its meaning between myself and one partner suggest that I might (and perhaps others) might want to revisit the topic of when 2NT might be each of these type bids (I posted a poll once here trying to get feedback on this very subject...the lesson I got from this poll, was that I was much more like to assign "scramble" to a 2NT bid than most people, who choose natural or gb2NT while I was scrambling. Clearly each partnership needs a list of hard and fast rules so such confusion doesn't occur.

http://forums.bridgebase.com/in...ay;threadid=164

The following is sort of a quick outline of the rules that I use, which not surprising, follow very closely my understanding fo the teaching of Robson/Segal's partnership bidding rules....

2NT bid by ourside as the first bid with or without a jump shows a two suiter. With a jump, lower two unbid, without a jump, any two suiter. So for all the following 2NT is not the first bid on our side.

If we open 1M and they overcall (or dbl), my bid of 2NT (with or without a jump) is limit raise or better, 4 card support. If we overcall 1M as in (1C)-1S-(any)-2NT is the same. That is, not good/bad or lebenshol, or scramble. Etc.

If we open 1 of a minor and they overcall, I use 2NT as natural. Thus 1D-(2C)-2N is natural. And just like if we open 1m, if we overcall 2m, I play 2NT as natural (obviously some kind of fit). If the opponents show strength however, think something like (1H)-2C-(2S)-2NT where 2S was forcing, here 2NT as natural makes no sense. This i use as a senseless rule. If the bid can't mean what it is suppose to mean, it must mean something else. Here I play 2NT as a sound raise in clubs, while direct club raise is preemptive. Even better is a leap to 3NT here versus 4Clubs, with 4C being not invitational of a sac, and 3NT inviting a sacrafice.

This last auction brings up a similar sounding one...
(1S)-2C-DBL-2NT.. where dbl is negative. Now 2NT as natural also makes no sense. Here I use the raise to 3C as preemptive, so 2NT now has to fill in for the good raise. Note also I play (1D)-2C-(2D)-2NT as a high card raise, and direct raise as preemptive and weaker. This is more in line with M. Miles recommendation to reverse the meaning of 2NT and 3 level response when playing gb2NT (he thinks 3 bids weaker, 2NT stronger).

Ok, so when does gb2NT come into play? I use it a) when parnter makes a negative double, and I have to bid at the three level,

when partner makes a responsive double and I have to bid at the 3 level. This lets partner know if I have extra values or not. So consider an auction like...

1S-(2H)-DBL-(P)-? now 2NT is weaker hand, immediate 3 any stronger hand.

(1S)-DBL-(2S)-DBL-(P)-? 2NT is weaker hand, immediate 3 any stronger hand. Also, consider reversing the weak and strong bids here.

Also, here,
1H-(1S)-Pass-(2S)-?? As opener, I like to play an immediate 3bid as a weaker hand that wants to compete, but 2NT as a strong hand (two suiter or one suiter) with a better hand. But you could choose to play normal GB2NT type bid here. With 2NT being weaker. This allows me to compete "safely" to 3H's without overexciting parnter who says to himself (he bid at the three level and I am a passed hand, so.... ).

When is 2NT a scramble? When nothing else makes sense. Consider this auction...

(1S)-DBL-(2S)-Pass
(Pas)-DBL-(Pas)-2NT

No need for 2NT to be good/bad. This is clearly, unquestionably scramble. If we are both passed hands and especially if the 2NT bidder has passed twice, 2NT in response to a double is scramble. And in most reopening doubles 2NT is scambling.

Ben

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